1. Acquired active and passive immunity. Preparations to induce active artificial immunity.
2. Vaccines. Classification, application. Vaccine strains. Requirements and preparation.
3. Live attenuated vaccines. Preparation and application. Merits and drawbacks.
4. Killed (inactivated) vaccines. Preparation and application. Merits and drawbacks.
5. Subunit vaccines. Preparation and application. Merits and drawbacks. Application of adjuvants.
6. Toxoids. Preparation, purification, titration, application.
7. Associated and combined vaccines. Merits and drawbacks. Application of adjuvants.
8. Synthetic peptides. Genetically engineered vaccines. Anti-idiotype vaccines. Basic principles of production.
9. Immunotherapy and immunoprophylaxis by using vaccines.
10. Preparations to form artificial passive immunity. Antibody-containing sera for immunotherapy and immunoprophylaxis.
11. Antitoxic sera and immunoglobulins. Preparation, purification, titration. Application.
12. Serotherapy and seroprophylaxis. Complications. Prevention of complications.
13. Interferon. Nature. Preparation and manufacturing. Application.
14. Allergens. Their application.
WRITTEN TEST for Review on SECTION: «INFECTION and IMMUNITY».
1. Point out the elements essential for the occurrence of infectious process:
1. susceptible macroorganism
2. pathogenic infectious agent
3. specific environmental conditions
4. opportunistic microbe
2. What are the possible outcomes of the host exposure to microbes?
1. Severe acute disease
2. Carrier state
3. Inapparent infection
4. No infection
3. Point out the types of generalized infection:
1. Septicemia
2. Pyemia
3. Toxemia
4. Anemia
4. The distinguishing characteristics of infectious disease are all of the following, EXCEPT:
1. It is caused by pathogenic microbe
2. It is communicable
3. It is followed by a specific immune response in the host
4. It can be caused by insects
5. Which of the following statements characterizing the role of the environment for the infection development are true? It
1. affects the host defence and the microbial virulence
2. may be the source and reservoir of infection
3. provides the mechanisms and routs of microbial transmission
4. affects the microbial pathogenicity
6. All of the following statements concerning endotoxins are true, EXCEPT:
1. They are the component of bacterial cell outer membrane
2. Their immunogenicity is low
3. Most of them produce similar generalized effect in the host
4. They may be converted into toxoid
7. All of the following statements characterizing toxoids are true, EXCEPT:
1. They are lipopolysaccharides
2. They are used for immunization
3. They are protective antibodies
4. They have lost toxicity and retained antigenicity
8. Which of the following statements characterizes endemic infection? It
1. has a world-wide spreading
2. occurs regularly in a specific population
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3. spreads rapidly involving many persons within a short period of time
4. is constantly present in a specific population at a low level
9. All of the following functions have both a primary and secondary lymphoid organs, EXCEPT:
1. Cellular proliferation
2. Differentiation of lymphocytes
3. Cellular interaction
4. Antigen-dependent response
10. Converting a toxin to a toxoid:
1. makes the toxin more immunogenic
2. decreases its toxicity
3. increases phagocytosis
4. reduces the biologic activity of the toxin
11. Which of the following statements characterize haptens? They
1. require carrier molecules in order to be immunogenic
2. will not react with specific antibodies in vitro unless homologous carriers are employed
3. interact with specific antibody
4. can stimulate secondary antibody response without carriers
12. The class-specific antigenic determinants (isotypes) of immunoglobulins are associated with which of the following:
1. L chains
2. H chains
3. variable regions
4. constant regions
13. An immunoglobulin molecule consists of which of the following:
1. two identical light chains
2. variable and constant regions on each chain
3. two identical heavy chains
4. polypeptide chains divided into domains
14. All of the following are the properties of human Ig G, EXCEPT::
1. It can pass through placenta
2. It can be cleaved by pepsin and yet remain divalent
3. It is the main Ig of secondary immune response
4. It induces the formation of leukocytes
15. In the indirect immunofluorescent test the reagent combinations involved may be which of the following:
1. Patient’s serum and fluorescein-labeled diagnosticum
2. Patient’s specimens tested, diagnostic rabbit serum and fluorescein-labeled anti-rabbit antibody
3. Fluorescein-labeled patient’s serum and rabbit anti-human antibody
4. Patient’s serum, fluorescein-labeled rabbit anti-human antibody and diagnosticum
16. Complement is required for lysis of:
1. bacteria by specific antibodies
2. bacteria by bacteriophages
3. erythrocytes by specific antibodies
4. erythrocytes by lecithinase
17. The alternative pathway of complement activation is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
1. activation of complement components beyond C3 in the cascade
2. participation of properdin
3. generation of anaphylatoxin
4. utilization of C4
18. Which of the following activate the alternative pathway of complement?
1. endotoxin
2. C1
3. yeast cell wall
4. monomeric Ig G
19. Which component or combination of components of complement could be missing and still leave the remainder of the complement system capable of activation by the alternative pathway:
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1. C1, 2, and 3
2. C3 only
3. C2, 3, and 4
4. C1, 2, and 4
20. Human T-cells can be distinguished from B-cells and other cells by all of the following, EXCEPT:
1. morphologic appearance
2. the presence of antigen-specific receptors
3. the formation of rosettes with sheep red blood cells
4. the presence of cytoplasmic granules
21. Thymus processing is not necessary for maturation of which of the following:
1. helper T-cells
2. B-cells
3. cytotoxic T-cells
4. monocytes
22. Which of the following statements are true? The macrophages
1. are derived from blood monocytes
2. have a great diversity of form
3. are able to ingest and degrade microorganisms
4. can process and present antigens to T-cells
23. Helper T-cells induce:
1. proliferation of B-cells
2. differentiation of B-cells into plasma cells
3. expansion of the pool of memory B-cells
4. immunoglobulin class switch
24. The secondary antibody response differs from the primary response by having all of the following, EXCEPT:
1. a shorter latent period
2. a longer duration of production of antibody
3. a greater quantity of antibody produced
4. primarily Ig M antibody produced
25. CD4+ cells can:
1. help B-cells to make antibody
2. process and present antigen
3. amplify activities of T-cells
4. release IL-1
26. In a response by B-cells to thymus-dependent antigen, it is proposed that:
1. helper T-cells recognize the antigen in association with MHC (or HLA) class II molecules on macrophage
2. both carrier and haptenic determinants have to be present on the same molecule for effective cooperation between B-cells
3. helper T-cells produce the lymphokines needed for the B-cells to produce the various classes of immunoglobulin
4. helper T-cells may respond to the same antigen and MHC (or HLA) class II molecules on both macrophage and B-cell
27. The MHC (or HLA) class I and II proteins share all of the following features, EXCEPT:
1. They are both integral membrane proteins
2. They both serve to restrict responses of T-killers
3. They are both codominantly expressed on cells
4. They are both expressed on all nucleated cells
28. CD8+ cells kill their targets by which of the following processes:
1. Recognition of peptides on MHC (or HLA) class I molecules
2. Activation of the alternative complement pathway
3. Insertion of representative molecules into target membranes
4. Binding via Fc receptors to antibody-coated targets
29. Immunodeficiency disease can result from which of the following? Defect in
1. T lymphocytes developing
2. bone marrow stem cells
3. phagocytes function
4. complement function
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30. Which of the following statements concerning anaphylactic reactions are true? They
1. may develop in minutes and abate within one-half hour
2. may be followed by inflammatory several hours later
3. are the consequence of released biological active molecules from mast cells
4. involve Ig E
31. Which of the following statements are true? Serum sickness occurs if:
1. anti-basement membrane antibodies are present
2. extreme excess of antibody develop
3. Ig E antibodies are produced
4. soluble immune complexes are formed
32. Immune complexes are involved in the pathogenesis of which of the following:
1. Farmer’s lung
2. Serum sickness
3. Glomerulonephritis of systemic lupus erythematosus
4. Anaphylaxis
33. Point out the possible mechanisms for the development of autoimmune diseases:
1. Alteration of self antigen so it is recognized as foreign
2. Leakage of sequestered self antigen
3. Disorders in T-cells maturation
4. Infection with a microorganism that carries a cross-reactive antigen
34. Blood from group AB donors can be transfused to a recipient without causing a transfusion reaction if:
1. the recipient is A
2. the recipient is B
3. the recipient is O
4.the recipient is AB
35. All of the following statements regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn are correct, EXCEPT:
1. Administration of anti-Rh globulins to an «Rh-negative» mother soon after delivery of an «Rh+» baby can suppress the induction of anti-Rh globulins by mother
2. It is an example of type II hypersensitivity reaction
3. The mother forms antibodies against Rh antigens which she lacks
4. If the newborn is «Rh- «and the mother is «Rh+», the fetus becomes tolerant to Rh antigens
36. Intentional protection of a future newborn against Rh disease involves which of the following?
1. Active immunization of the mother to produce transplacental Ig G
2. Active immunization of the mother with Rh antigen to induce antibody
3. Passive immunization of the newborn to remove the Rh antigen
4. Passive immunization of the mother to remove Rh antigen
37. Blood group incompatibility usually possess a transfusion risk because:
1. the donor’s immunoglobulins react with recipient’s erythrocytes
2. a mixed lymphocyte reaction takes place
3. the recipient’s T lymphocytes will become activated by the donor’s antigens
4. the recipient’s immunoglobulins react with donor’s erythrocytes
38. The administration of vaccines is not without hazard. Which of the following vaccines is least likely to affect adversely an immunocompromised host?
1. Killed vaccine
2. Subunit vaccine
3. Toxoid
4. Live vaccine
39. Which of the following statements concerning serum sickness due to administration of horse antitoxin for passive protection in human are true? Serum sickness is characterized by
1. production of antibodies against foreign horse antibody
2. delayed onset in 10-14 days
3. deposition of antigen-antibody complexes at various sites in the host
4. cell-mediated immune response
40. The main antibody isotype that acts against bacteria in mucosa is which of the following:
1. Ig G
2. Ig D
3. Ig M
4. Ig A
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