Основной задачей специалиста УВД является четкое руководство движением всей сово-купности воздушных судов, находящихся в его районе, секторе, для обеспечения безопасности и регулярности полетов. Диспетчер УВД должен постоянно анализировать воздушную обста-новку, хорошо знать местонахождение летательных аппаратов, их скорость и высоту полета, маршруты следования, состояние аэродромов назначения и запасных аэродромов. Это позволяет диспетчеру грамотно и своевременно давать указания экипажам об изменении режима полета, рекомендовать в случае необходимости запасной аэродром, разрешать взлет или посадку. В процессе управления воздушным движением специалист УВД постоянно поддерживает связь с экипажами воздушных судов, передавая им управляющие команды и запрашивая у них необхо-димую информацию, связанную как с непосредственным управлением полетами, так и с плани-рованием воздушного движения, его организацией и обеспечением.
Профессия диспетчера УВД ответственна и сложна. Работа по УВД требует от человека предельной собранности, решительности, умения четко работать в сложных условиях, то есть профессия диспетчера предъявляет высокие требования к психофизиологическим качествам человека. Для специалиста УВД важны такие качества, как устойчивость, распределение и лег-кость переключения внимания, так как одновременно диспетчеру приходится управлять не-сколькими воздушными объектами; отдавать команды в эфир и прослушивать переговоры своих коллег, работающих в смежных секторах, следить за экраном радиолокатора и вести необходи-мые записи.
Специалист УВД должен обладать хорошей оперативной памятью. В процессе УВД необ-ходимо запоминать и передавать большое количество информации: позывные самолетов, эше-лоны следования, курс, метеоинформацию (давление и температуру воздуха, направление и ско-рость ветра и др.). Кроме того, необходимо хорошо помнить инструкции и правила полетов, схемы маневров, летные характеристики различных типов самолетов, параметры географиче-ской среды и особенности технической оснащенности аэропортов.
Специалист УВД должен уметь прогнозировать воздушную обстановку на основании имеющейся информации о планах полетов, обладать развитым пространственным воображени-ем, уметь быстро анализировать воздушную ситуацию, то есть предвидеть потенциальные кон-фликты и вовремя их устранять.
Специалист УВД должен обладать хорошей дикцией, так как речевой обмен информаци-ей с экипажами воздушных судов, смежными органами УВД и другими наземными службами играет огромную роль в его/ее специальности. Диспетчер также должен обладать хорошим зрением и слухом. Он должен уметь выделить полезную информацию на фоне шумов. Кроме указанных выше качеств диспетчер УВД должен обладать таким важным для работы интеграль-ным свойством, как нервно-эмоциональная устойчивость, т.е. способность сохранять хладно-кровие и хорошую работоспособность в сложных условиях деятельности.
И, конечно же, диспетчер УВД должен уметь вести радиообмен на английском языке, на котором работает все мировое авиационное сообщество. Помимо знания и свободного владе-ния стандартной Фразеологией радиообмена на английском языке, являющейся одним из ком-понентов Профессионально-ориентированного английского языка, диспетчер обязан владеть Общим английским языком на уровне Upper-Intermediate или на Рабочем уровне 4 ИКАО. По-стоянное повышение / поддержание уровня своей языковой подготовки является одной из ос-новных задач современного авиадиспетчера.
Ex. 198**. Outline the pilot’s main duties (refer to Ex. 197).
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APPENDIX Aviation English Test
Choose the correct word
1. People dreamed of … like the birds from earliest of times.
A fly B flying C the flying
2. An aeroplane is a A ground
… vehicle.
B “follow me” C flying
3. An air balloon is a …. A heavier-than-air B
craft.
lighter-than-air C lighter-than-ground
4. In 1783 man left …. the ground A from B off
for the first time.
C -
5. The Wright brothers made the first …. flights.
A controlling B controlled C uncontrolled
6. The monoplane “Spirit of St. Louis” had only a 220 … engine.
A horsepower B manpower C horsepowers
7. Modern planes can … hundreds of passengers.
A put B get C carry
8. Aircraft designers … the size and the speed of aircraft some years ago. A have increased B increase C increased
9. Lately the … of passenger planes has been improved.
A data B characteristics C performance
10. The first … passengers were two birds and a sheep.
A airborne B aloft C airbridge
11. There are different kinds of flying vehicles: an air balloon, a glider, an airship and ….
A a submarine B an aircraft C a ship
12. Sikorsky designed his biplane in 1913, … he? A did B wasn’t
13. Who … a solo flight across the Atlantics? A did make B made
C didn’t
C was made
14. Airports differ in the type of traffic, the they … their passengers.
A service B control
flight distribution and the way
C care
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15 …….are usually located on the arrival and departure floors.
A shares B concourses C landsites
16. When flying abroad passengers should go through the … after the check-in.
A meeting point B jetty C passport control
17. Things lost in the airport or left on a plane can be found in the … A customs control B lost property office C tourist bureau
18. Passengers can pick up A security section B
their luggage in the ….
car rentals C baggage reclaim area
19. In case a person needs doctor’s consultation he should go to a … A medical center B nursery C health control
20. In some airports travel … can be bought A catering B insurance
from machines. C influx
21. The desired accommodation... … … at the hotel reservation desk.
A can be book B can book C can be booked
22. Information A about, board
… your flight is displayed on the flight information B on, counter C about, hold up
23. Flight number 783 is … due to bad weather.
A intended B influenced C cancelled
24. Passengers usually A are come
… to the airport two hours before departure. B are coming C come
25 … are used for take off and landings.
A clearways B runways C stopways
26. Before lining up the aircraft must stop at the ….
A holding point B threshold C stopway
27. The area where aircraft stop in case of abandoned take off is a …. A safety strip B stopway C stopbar
28. …. provides ATC services to aircraft airport or on the movement area.
A tower B information
operating
C
in the vicinity of the
ground
29. The area used for the aircraft loading and unloading is called A blast fence B load area C ramp
30. There are many planes in the … of the aerodrome. A vicinity B visibility C
31. What is the passenger … of the TU-204 aircraft? A capacity B ability C
aids
capability
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32. … allows taxiways.
A taxisrip
aircraft to
B
turn off at higher
high-speed turnoff
speeds than on other exit
C holding bay
33. Where is the compass …?
A stand B base C area
34. Passenger luggage A is kept
… in the luggage compartment during flight. B is keeped C kept
35. Catering is delivered into the plane through the ….
A hatch B service door C emergency door
36. The aircraft is controlled in three axes; roll, pitch and …. A steering B heading C yaw
37. Flight crew … the aircraft from the cockpit. A controlling B controls
38. Flaps form the … edge of the aircraft. A leading B extending
39. Rudder and elevator are located on the …. A tail wheel B tail unit
C is controlled
C trailing
C wing tip
40. The conventional aircraft consists of five main parts: the wing, the fuselage, the tail assembly, the landing gear and the ….
A APU B power supply C power plant
41. … are used during descent in flight and landing run.
A spoilers B fin C ailerons
42. The landing gear is retracted in the air and extended before landing in order to reduce ….
A thrust B drag C weight
43. How long … … … to remain on the ramp? A must we B do we have
44. What is the fuel … of this aircraft? A consumption B waste
45. The aircraft was … by the controller. A tuned B identified
C should we
C use
C adjusted
46. The Airbus will … the first 100 m of the A overshoot B overfly
RW.
C overtake
47. You are cleared to make … approach.
A RVR B RMI C SRA
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48. I cannot read you due to ….
A intercommunication B intermittent
49. Radial is the magnetic...
A track B bearing
50. Due to distortions change to the … frequency. A secondary B present
C interference
C course
C cancelled
51. Information for you: abrupt … was reported on final approximately at 300 m.
A windscreen B wind shear C windshield
52. You are cleared to detour … the route.
A around B across
the thunderstorm activity 20 miles right of
C along
53. The sky is obscured. It’s...
A broken B overcast
54. Be informed of … conditions en route. A hazardous B heavy
C scattered
C frequent
55. Heavy icing … A was observing
… between 3.000 and 5.000 m.
B observed C was observed
56. I am unsure of my position. We haven’t A tuned B updated
… GPS yet.
C improved
57. Proceed via A advisory
… route 16.
B additional C advising
58. Search and.. service was alerted one hour ago. A recent B rescue
59. VFR flights are not … in Class A airspace. A catered B accessed
60. Report avoidance action …..
A completed B will be complete
C resolve
C authorized
C will complete
61. Did you … all A prohibit
passengers’ safety?
B notify C ensure
62. When you … 125,3.
A will pass
the Scottish FIR boundary
B pass
contact London Control on
C passing
63. The aircraft … … … according to ETA if clouds.
A would have landed, B has landed, had been will be
there … … an opening on
C had landed, would have been
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64. Aircraft equipment.
A in
accidents result … losses of vital
B to
resources, namely people and
C at
65. ATC controllers … the flow of traffic.
A accomplish B apply C regulate
66. Is it possible to …. this step down A simply B simplify
procedure?
C simplificate
67. The aircraft … A was identificated
… on westbound leg of approach.
B was identification C was identified
68. What is this beacon … A designate B
?
designator C designating
69. Each pilot should be trained to manage risk... order to keep all situations.. control.
A in, under B with, in C on, under
70. His pilot’s license A A evaluated
hasn’t been … for two weeks.
B value C valid
71. The … mode of transponder provides altitude readout. A B B A C C
72. A plane flying behind a jet … to avoid wake turbulence. A has B must C have
73... clouds cover less than half the sky.
A scattered B overcast C obscure
74. … are followed when a plane is navigated using instruments only. A VFR B IFR C IMC
75. A specified area within or over which there may exist activities constituting a potential danger to aircraft is a ….
A hazardous area B prohibited area C restricted area
76. … time 16.30. Start up at your discretion.
A take off B slot C airborne
77. If the fog … … thicker then the aircraft … … … a TV mast.
A hadn’t got, wouldn’t B wouldn’t got, had C hasn’t’ got, will not have struck struck strike
78. The aircraft had to.. fuel in order to lose weight.
A lose B burn C spare
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79. The plane lost altitude due to wake turbulence of the … aircraft. A following B adjacent C preceding
80. The aircraft in distress has … for landing.
A queue B sequence C priority
81. The aircraft … on A lost, approached
radar when it … for RW 04.
B was lost, C is losing, approached was approaching
82. VDA 035 A to
is approaching … B -
the field from North.
C for
83. If we cannot land at our destination we will proceed to the …. A alternating B alternative C alternate
84. A holding … is contained within a holding …, which allows a certain amount of inaccuracy due to wind effect, turning errors, and other variables.
A pattern, area B area, pattern C stack, pattern
85. In recent times there … increased use of offset A is B was
VOR/DME procedures. C has been
86. The aims of … for all aircraft operations are: increased profit, schedule reliability, user selected flight profiles, reduced separation.
A CFIT B CNS/ATM C CRM
87. The implementation of this system … the opportunity to apply vast knowledge about human factors to provide safety.
A is renew B renews C news
88. To ensure global … of regional AFTM systems as a part of an integrated ATM system, standardization of functionality is required on a worldwide basis.
A compatibility B cost C capacity
89. Tower issues information to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe flow of air traffic on and in the vicinity of the aerodrome with the object of preventing... between aircraft.
A gaps B collisions C meetings
90. The much publicized “free flight” concept of the USA is one example of the drive toward more … of flight.
A autonomy B automation C control
91. Pilots follow........ procedure if they fail to continue approach.
A standard arrival B missed approach C approach
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92.... is intended to provide current, routine information to arriving and departing aircarft by means of continious and repetitive broadcasts throughout the day or specified portion of of the day.
A ATIS B CNS C CTA
93. The time at which the pilot estimates that the aircraft will come to its destination is.....
A ETD B EAT C ETA
94. Any area of land or water designed, equipped and prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft is an....
A airfoil B aerial C aerodrome
95.... is a control area or part of a control area established in the form of a corridor equipped with radio navigation aids.
A airway B approach C airborne
96. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed usually expressed in degrees from North is.....
A heading B course C way
97.... altitude/height is a specified altitude / height at which pilots must initiate a missed approach if they fail to establish visual contact with ground.
A deciding B decision C decisive
98. Two minutes ago the aircraft... speed due to wind shear on final. A has lost B is lost C lost
99.... is the vertivcal distance of a level or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level.
A altitude B height C flight level
100. What was the reason for emergency landing?
A were B was C are
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| 1 B | 2 C | 3 B | 4 C | 5 B |
| 6 A | 7 C | 8 C | 9 C | 10 A |
| 11 B | 12 C | 13 B | 14 A | 15 B |
| 16 C | 17 B | 18 C | 19 A | 20 B |
| 21 C | 22 A | 23 C | 24 C | 25 B |
| 26 A | 27 B | 28 A | 29 C | 30 A |
| 31 A | 32 B | 33 B | 34 A | 35 B |
| 36 C | 37 B | 38 C | 39 B | 40 C |
| 41 A | 42 B | 43 B | 44 A | 45 B |
| 46 A | 47 C | 48 C | 49 B | 50 A |
| 51 B | 52 A | 53 B | 54 A | 55 C |
| 56 B | 57 A | 58 B | 59 C | 60 A |
| 61 C | 62 B | 63 A | 64 A | 65 C |
| 66 B | 67 C | 68 B | 69 A | 70 C |
| 71 C | 72 A | 73 A | 74 B | 75 A |
| 76 B | 77 A | 78 B | 79 C | 80 C |
| 81 B | 82 B | 83 C | 84 A | 85 C |
| 86 B | 87 B | 88 A | 89 B | 90 A |
| 91 B | 92 A | 93 C | 94 C | 95 A |
| 96 A | 97 B | 98 C | 99 A | 100 B |
Test evaluation criteria:
100 – 91 (correct answers) = excellent (5) 90 – 76 (correct answers) = good (4)
75 – 60 (correct answers) = satisfactory (3)
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